Interesting stuff. Perhaps all of this just goes to show that sometimes English phrases crop up with no application in common law, but merely serve to describe civil law concepts.
As a short answer to Kevin, no. To be sure, common law countries face the same problems in marriage property issues, but they solve them differently. The kind of distinction drawn by the German law, and apparently by the Swiss (and probably many other civil law countries), does not exist in the same way in English-speaking countries.
In America, for instance (the only area of my legal competence), most states follow a concept that automatically divides property acquired during marriage in equal halfs, unless the parties have valid marriage contracts or other reasons of fairness dictate a different result upon divorce. There are exceptions to this rule even within America (California and Texas, for instance, whose "Spanish" heritage apparently makes them more akin to civil law marriage rules).
I don't want to get into long explanations that won't serve any purpose anyway, but it seems that "matrimonial regime" may as well just be called that. If someone, like me, doesn't understand it at first, they just will have to research German etc. law. And indeed, this probably makes more sense than using English terms that would automatically be associated with legal concepts applicable in UK/USA/etc., but which have little or nothing to do with the particulars of German/Swiss/etc. law...