Comment | This is odd; I don't see how anyone could get the idea that in the US a middle name is in general anything other than a zweiter Vorname.
What determines whether a name is considered a last name or a first/middle name is how it's used. In the vast majority of cases, usage in the US is exactly the same as in the UK and Germany. The Smiths' baby girl is baptized Jane Mary (or Jane Mary Petunia Felicia Jingleheimer, or whatever). She will probably go by Jane, but she might decide to go by Mary, or by Jane Mary. In any case, Mary is her middle name (= zweiter Vorname).
I seem to recall having explained this in some detail before, but since I don't want to dig through the archive:
Yes, there are cases where people have or add a second last name, either before or after the original one, but then they have two last names.
This includes cases where the whole family has a double last name, even if it's not hyphenated, like Cecil Day Lewis, who was Mr. Day Lewis. It also includes a small number of modern women who keep their maiden name and use two last names, as when Jane Doe marries John Smith and then prefers to be called Ms. Doe Smith. (And if John Smith was a particularly egalitarian modern guy, he might marry Jane Doe and then prefer to be called Mr. Smith Doe. Their children might then all be little Smith Does or little Doe Smiths, or some of both, or who knows what.)
There are also cases where people change their middle name, or add another one, but then they have a new middle name.
This includes the case of a woman who keeps her maiden name as a middle name, but use only one last name. Yes, Laura Ingalls Wilder and Hillary Rodham Clinton kept their maiden names in some contexts (mainly for business as opposed to social use, it seems to me, such as publishing), but they weren't called Mrs. Ingalls Wilder or Mrs. Rodham Clinton, just Mrs. Wilder and Mrs. Clinton. (At least I think that's true of Hillary, but if not, then she's the other category above like Jane Doe Smith.) So the maiden name is still a middle name, because it's not used with the title.
In this one exceptional case (which in fact applies only to a very small minority of women, even in the US), yes, it's not exactly like a Vorname in the sense of a baptismal name, like Laura or Hillary. But in fact it functions in just the same way; it's no different in practice than if the new middle name had been a family last name. If Jane Smith had been baptized Jane Miller Smith because there were Millers in her ancestry somewhere (probably her mother's or grandmother's family), Miller would be her middle name (even though it looks like a last name), but she wouldn't use it socially, she would still just be Ms. Smith. (The same is true for John, BTW, who might have been baptized John Miller Doe but is still just Mr. Doe.)
So it seems to me that, rather than saying that middle names don't exist in Germany, it might be more accurate to say that the option of using a family name as a middle name may not exist in Germany, since family names don't fulfill the rule about showing visible gender.
But actually, is that even true? What happens in Germany in the example above if Herr and Frau Smith want to baptize their baby girl Jane Mary Petunia Felicia Jingleheimer Smith? Jingleheimer might be a beloved family last name, in memory of dear old great-great-uncle Herbert Jingleheimer who left Jane's mother a fortune when he died. In that case, it too would be an additional Vorname for Jane, wouldn't it? Even if they just wanted to baptize her Jane Jingleheimer Smith, wouldn't that fulfill the gender rule, since Jane is a feminine name?
Or is that simply not done, out of tradition rather than law?
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