Comment | @Dragon, Leo, Babs: I think the point here is that there is a principal difference between the verbs "to get" and "have got". The "got" in "have got", which means the same as "to have", has nothing to do with the verb "to get"; therefore it should also not be viewed as being the past participle of "get". "Have got" is a phrasal verb meaning "to have"- forget the verb "get" here! I have got a new car = I have a new car. Jim has got lots of money = Jim has lots of money. Evidently, the verb "have got" has exactly the same form in AE. Because it has nothing to do with the verb "to get", there is also no "have gotten" here. (My hypothesis, this last bit.)
Older words like "to beget", meaning to sire or produce (used a lot in the Bible, for instance) still have the old forms: beget / begot (or begat) / begotten. But clearly this word hasn't been in common use for some time.
@tim: Also, as regards "ill-gotten gain", we also use the older p.p. endings for other verb past participles when used as attributive adjectives. e.g. drink / drank / drunk - but "a drunken sailor" (but "the sailor is drunk") A lot of German speakers get this confused, as the German verb pattern: er trinkt / er trank / er hat getrunken is extremely similar (no coincidence, of course), however English no longer has the -en on the past participle (except for the adjective). So students often come out with: "I was totally drunken last night" (should be "drunk") or "he has drunken too much" (correct: "drunk"). It would be interesting to know if any AE speakers would use the form "he has drunken". |
---|